I am not entirely certain what your question is. It might be
(i) Is it always possible to find a joint distribution of for any prescribed distributions of and ?
(ii) Is it possible to find/calculate a joint distribution from the three distributions when you know the joint distribution exists e.g. because these are observations in an experiment?
(i) is not possible in general. Set and then .
Now let and be uniform on and choose a distribution for so that . This means a contradiction to uniform. A way to visualize this might be looking at mass distributions on the square . Prescribing the margins (here uniform) is a restriction on the projections to the axes (i.e. and ) and the remaining freedom is distributing the mass in the square.
(ii) Looks more like statistics than probability. There are a number of ways of coming up with a joint distribution. But you would need to specify more context to find a reasonable approach.
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