Sunday, 11 November 2007

ra.rings and algebras - Is a left invertible element of a group ring also right invertible?

Given a group GG we may consider its group ring mathbbC[G]mathbbC[G] consisting of all finitely supported functions fcolonGtomathbbCfcolonGtomathbbC with pointwise addition and convolution. Take f,ginmathbbC[G]f,ginmathbbC[G] such that fg=1fg=1. Does this imply that gf=1gf=1?



If GG is abelian, its group ring is commutative, so the assertion holds. In the non-abelian case we have fg(x)=sumyf(xy1)g(y)fg(x)=sumyf(xy1)g(y), while gf(x)=sumyf(y1x)g(y)gf(x)=sumyf(y1x)g(y), and this doesn't seem very helpful.



If GG is finite, dimmathbbCmathbbC[G]=|G|<inftydimmathbbCmathbbC[G]=|G|<infty, and we may consider a linear operator TcolonmathbbC[G]tomathbbC[G]TcolonmathbbC[G]tomathbbC[G] defined by T(h)=fhT(h)=fh. It is obviously surjective, and hence also injective. Now, the assertion follows from T(gf)=f=T(1)T(gf)=f=T(1).



What about infinite non-abelian groups? Is a general proof or a counterexample known?

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