Sunday, 11 November 2007

ra.rings and algebras - Is a left invertible element of a group ring also right invertible?

Given a group G we may consider its group ring mathbbC[G] consisting of all finitely supported functions fcolonGtomathbbC with pointwise addition and convolution. Take f,ginmathbbC[G] such that fg=1. Does this imply that gf=1?



If G is abelian, its group ring is commutative, so the assertion holds. In the non-abelian case we have fg(x)=sumyf(xy1)g(y), while gf(x)=sumyf(y1x)g(y), and this doesn't seem very helpful.



If G is finite, dimmathbbCmathbbC[G]=|G|<infty, and we may consider a linear operator TcolonmathbbC[G]tomathbbC[G] defined by T(h)=fh. It is obviously surjective, and hence also injective. Now, the assertion follows from T(gf)=f=T(1).



What about infinite non-abelian groups? Is a general proof or a counterexample known?

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