Given a group G we may consider its group ring mathbbC[G] consisting of all finitely supported functions fcolonGtomathbbC with pointwise addition and convolution. Take f,ginmathbbC[G] such that f∗g=1. Does this imply that g∗f=1?
If G is abelian, its group ring is commutative, so the assertion holds. In the non-abelian case we have f∗g(x)=sumyf(xy−1)g(y), while g∗f(x)=sumyf(y−1x)g(y), and this doesn't seem very helpful.
If G is finite, dimmathbbCmathbbC[G]=|G|<infty, and we may consider a linear operator TcolonmathbbC[G]tomathbbC[G] defined by T(h)=f∗h. It is obviously surjective, and hence also injective. Now, the assertion follows from T(g∗f)=f=T(1).
What about infinite non-abelian groups? Is a general proof or a counterexample known?
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