Wednesday, 17 June 2015

grammaticality - Seem small clause

It is said that the omission of "to be" is allowed only when the adjective (phrases), noun (phrases), or prepositional phrase comes after the to be like this:




a He seemed (to be) angry about the decision.



b This seemed (to be) of great importance.



c She seemed (to be) a great player.




But I found some strange things about it. For example, this.




d He seemed excited by the news.




Well, excited by the news is definitely not an adjective phrase. Were the to be inserted in it, it would describe the action like this: the news excited him. So "excited" would be a past participle used as a verb after an auxiliary verb, not an adjective.



Like in a passive voice where the participles after the "to be" are considered verbal, or stative, participle phrase when not considered a pure adjective.




e He was bored by the music. <- bored by the music is not an adjective phrase but a stative, or verbal, participle phrase.




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_passive_voice#Stative_and_adjectival_uses



So why is it possible to say sentence d when "excited by the news" is a stative phrase not an adjective phrase? Wouldn't it be equivalent to deleting to be with present participle like this : He seemed doing the job.



Edit: What I referred to as stative past participle is known as dynamic passive by many. I think Wikipedia had some problem.
http://www.grammarphobia.com/blog/2008/11/stative-seeking.html

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