Wednesday, 16 December 2015

Why aren't there any sieges in Lord of The Rings?

Firstly Sauron did have a blocking force, it was arrayed to the North to intercept any relief from Rohan. Moreover, because he was committing attacks on multiple fronts, he thought he could forestall any concentration of forces by the Free People, Dale and the Lonely Mountain were attacked by Easterlings, Lothlorien and Thranduil's Kingdom by forces from the Misty mountains and Dol Guldur.



Secondly Tolkien has sieges in Middle-Earth History, Angband was one, but the Last Alliance beseiged Barad-dur for seven years.



The reason Sauron couldn't wait was The Ring. The most likely thing to happen to it, in his estimation, was that someone of the Free Peoples would take it and use it to challenge him. He had to strike hard and fast to forestall the would be Lord of the Rings learning how to use it and subverting his control.



Saruman thought he had a trick that would make a long siege unnecessary, the Blasting Fire of Orthanc



BTW, in the book it is Erkenbrand who "has rebelled" against Theoden, Eomer is still with Theoden in Meduseld.

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