When I read the article "Index Theory" in Handbook of global analysis, I meet a result as below(Corollary 2.13):
If every F0inmathcalF(H1,H2), there is an open neighborhood U0subseteqmathcalB(H1,H2), such that FinU0 implies F((KerF0)perp)oplusF0(H1)perp=H2
I didn't find this result in other books.
I can't understand the proof about it. Fv+w=F(v−f0)+w? Why?
Edit:
H1 and H2 are separable Hilbert spaces.
mathcalF(H1,H2) is the spaces of Fredholm operators.
mathcalB(H1,H2) is the spaces of bounded operators.
In the proof, construct a overlineF:H1oplusF0(H1)perptoH2opluskerF0 by
overlineF(v,w)=(Fv−w,piKerF0v), this is a isomorphism. Since overlineF is onto, for any (u,f0)inH2opluskerF0, there is (v,w)inH1oplusF0(H1)perp, with u=Fv−w and piKerF0v=f0.
piKerF0:H1toKerF0
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