ADDED: As Mark Sapir and other are pointing out, if you only have neq's, no ='s, <'s or >'s, then there is always a solution. That is to say, if u1, u2, ..., uN are nonzero polynomials, then there is always a lattice point where all the ui are nonzero. I assume you are asking the nontrivial question and allowing <'s and >'s:
No. Any set of equations can be turned into a set of special equations. For example, if you have the equation x3y2z+x2=7, just introduce new variables x1, x2, x3, y1, y2 and z1, and write down the special equations x1=x2, x2=x3, y1=y2 and x1x2x3y1y2z+x1x2=7. This is often called the polarization trick.
So special equations are no simpler than ordinary equations and, as I imagine you know, there is no algorithm to solve Diophantine equations.
I just noticed that you said "inequalities" not equalities. But any Diophantine equation can be rewritten as an inequality: f(x,y,z)=0 is the same as −1<f(x,y,z)<1, and any inequality as an equality: zgeq0 is equivalent to exists(p,q,r,s):z=p2+q2+r2+s2. So this doesn't gain or lose you any generality.
No comments:
Post a Comment