Saturday, 7 October 2006

measure theory - Dimension of the measurable space mathbbRn

Consider mathbbRn as measurable space with the Borel algebra. If mathbbRn and mathbbRm are isomorphic (in the category of measurable spaces, i.e. there are measurable maps in both directions, which are inverse to each other), can we conclude n=m? Note that this statement is stronger than the invariance of dimension in topology and I doubt that it is true. Can you give a counterexample?

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