Thursday, 11 October 2007

fa.functional analysis - When is a Banach space a Hilbert space?

In this simple note http://arxiv.org/abs/0907.1813 (to appear in Colloq. Math.), Rossi and I proved a characterization in terms of "inversion of Riesz representation theorem".



Here is the result: let XX be a normed space and recall Birkhoff-James ortogonality: xinXxinX is orthogonal to yinXyinX iff for all scalars lambdalambda, one has ||x||leq||x+lambday||||x||leq||x+lambday||.



Let HH be a Hilbert space and xrightarrowfxxrightarrowfx be the Riesz representation. Observe that xinKer(fx)perpxinKer(fx)perp, which can be required using Birkhoff-James orthogonality:



Theorem: Let XX be a normed (resp. Banach) space and xrightarrowfxxrightarrowfx be an isometric mapping from XX to XX such that



1) fx(y)=overlinefy(x)fx(y)=overlinefy(x)



2) xinKer(fx)perpxinKer(fx)perp (in the sense of Birkhoff and James)



Then XX is a pre-Hilbert (resp. Hilbert) space and the mapping xrightarrowfxxrightarrowfx is the Riesz representation.

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