In this simple note http://arxiv.org/abs/0907.1813 (to appear in Colloq. Math.), Rossi and I proved a characterization in terms of "inversion of Riesz representation theorem".
Here is the result: let be a normed space and recall Birkhoff-James ortogonality: is orthogonal to iff for all scalars , one has .
Let be a Hilbert space and be the Riesz representation. Observe that , which can be required using Birkhoff-James orthogonality:
Theorem: Let be a normed (resp. Banach) space and be an isometric mapping from to such that
1)
2) (in the sense of Birkhoff and James)
Then is a pre-Hilbert (resp. Hilbert) space and the mapping is the Riesz representation.
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